If there are infinite universes, covering all permutations of all properties (i asume thats what they mean by omniverse), then there will be exactly as many universes with a certain property then there are without it. So it is actually 50/50.
In the “multiverse of all possibilities” there will be 50% without a multiverse
That’s not how statistics works lol
If there are infinite universes, covering all permutations of all properties (i asume thats what they mean by omniverse), then there will be exactly as many universes with a certain property then there are without it. So it is actually 50/50.
In the “multiverse of all possibilities” there will be 50% without a multiverse