• poVoq@slrpnk.net
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    3 months ago

    Sorry, but I am using my car 🤷‍♂️

    Can you link to that definition? Because portability is definitely not the distinction between private and personal property. Usage is.

    What follows is a pure strawman argument, because when you are using your house it is personal property and can not just be claimed by someone else.

    I know perfectly well what a strawman argument is, and you have been doing it here the entire time. You must have extremely poor reading comprehension if you think I ever claimed anything of what you have been arguing against here.

      • poVoq@slrpnk.net
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        3 months ago

        That definition (in the subsection about political theory only) seems fine, but it says little about how to practically determine ownership of personal property. The commonly agreed method to do so is “regular usage”, as I have been repeating here many times over…

        • Bytemeister@lemmy.world
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          3 months ago

          Who is commonly agreeing to this? What counts as “regular usage”? I regularly use the toilet at work. Would it become my personal property?

          • poVoq@slrpnk.net
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            3 months ago

            The various people that have developed this political & economic theory on which for example the definition on the Wikipedia page you linked is based on. This is literally something that has been discussed in detail for over 150 years now.

            And yes, you as an employee of a company would become a co-owner of that company, and therefore the toilet would be partially yours, but obviously not exclusively.