Can you link to that definition? Because portability is definitely not the distinction between private and personal property. Usage is.
What follows is a pure strawman argument, because when you are using your house it is personal property and can not just be claimed by someone else.
I know perfectly well what a strawman argument is, and you have been doing it here the entire time. You must have extremely poor reading comprehension if you think I ever claimed anything of what you have been arguing against here.
If that description of personal property does not work for your individual consensus, please provide one (that is testable) for the purpose of this conversation.
That definition (in the subsection about political theory only) seems fine, but it says little about how to practically determine ownership of personal property. The commonly agreed method to do so is “regular usage”, as I have been repeating here many times over…
The various people that have developed this political & economic theory on which for example the definition on the Wikipedia page you linked is based on. This is literally something that has been discussed in detail for over 150 years now.
And yes, you as an employee of a company would become a co-owner of that company, and therefore the toilet would be partially yours, but obviously not exclusively.
The various people that have developed this political & economic theory on which for example the definition on the Wikipedia page you linked is based on.
The word “regular” appears 0 times I the article I linked. What did you read?
I already said that the Wikipedia definition lacks the crucial detail about how to determine when something counts as personal property. But look it up yourself, there are entire books on the topic.
Sorry, but I am using my car 🤷♂️
Can you link to that definition? Because portability is definitely not the distinction between private and personal property. Usage is.
What follows is a pure strawman argument, because when you are using your house it is personal property and can not just be claimed by someone else.
I know perfectly well what a strawman argument is, and you have been doing it here the entire time. You must have extremely poor reading comprehension if you think I ever claimed anything of what you have been arguing against here.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_property#Personal_versus_private_property
If that description of personal property does not work for your individual consensus, please provide one (that is testable) for the purpose of this conversation.
That definition (in the subsection about political theory only) seems fine, but it says little about how to practically determine ownership of personal property. The commonly agreed method to do so is “regular usage”, as I have been repeating here many times over…
Who is commonly agreeing to this? What counts as “regular usage”? I regularly use the toilet at work. Would it become my personal property?
The various people that have developed this political & economic theory on which for example the definition on the Wikipedia page you linked is based on. This is literally something that has been discussed in detail for over 150 years now.
And yes, you as an employee of a company would become a co-owner of that company, and therefore the toilet would be partially yours, but obviously not exclusively.
The word “regular” appears 0 times I the article I linked. What did you read?
I already said that the Wikipedia definition lacks the crucial detail about how to determine when something counts as personal property. But look it up yourself, there are entire books on the topic.
Any specific books or resources you might recommend?
https://anarchism.pageabode.com/book/b-3-why-are-anarchists-against-private-property/#secb31