Yes, of course. They created the design, it cost them time and money, you want to use it, so you should pay part of those costs. Or to put it differently: You both use the design, why should they be the ones to pay for its creation, and not you?
your might owe under almost any circumstance, but almost all of them have to drop with a mutually agreed contract or transfer of property. what circumstance do you think created the debt here? and what if someone walks across my front yard bridge? do they owe the engineers too? it’s just silly.
It depends on the system. In taxes, yes. Use isn’t tied to paying. In consumer goods and services, they are not paid by taxes. So they do have a direct use/buy causation.
that’s doesn’t follow
Idk what to tell you but: Yes it does. We can’t really argue if you refuse to elaborate your point.
when you drive over a bridge, do you tip the engineering form? the contractors? they’re the ones who created this experience for you.
I pay taxes, those were used to pay the people who build the bridge. And yes, taxes should be fair.
not the owners: the designers. what if I copy the bridge and put it in my front yard: do you think I owe royalties to the engineering firm?
Yes, of course. They created the design, it cost them time and money, you want to use it, so you should pay part of those costs. Or to put it differently: You both use the design, why should they be the ones to pay for its creation, and not you?
they still have the design. I haven’t taken something from them. I don’t owe them anything.
Who says you can only owe something if you take something away first?
your might owe under almost any circumstance, but almost all of them have to drop with a mutually agreed contract or transfer of property. what circumstance do you think created the debt here? and what if someone walks across my front yard bridge? do they owe the engineers too? it’s just silly.
rent is immoral
Yes, you do, in the form of buying gas or paying taxes. You don’t even have to use the bridge to have to pay for it.
so use isn’t tied to paying. one has nothing to do with the other.
It depends on the system. In taxes, yes. Use isn’t tied to paying. In consumer goods and services, they are not paid by taxes. So they do have a direct use/buy causation.