What you coloured, taken by itself it sounds like pretty nebulous statement because both slaves and proletarians through history could have had very different existences, including the rare cases where slaves did had it better, but read the part after the “,” which says that regardless of it, proletarian is always on a higher social level than slave.
In fact, it is completely opposite to your claim that he would say that wage slavery is somehow worse oppresion than chattel slavery.
How so? Engels argues proles are worse off because they are more replaceable as their labor is being bought as opposed to slaves who are owned and therefore more value and less disposable to their master.
How did you jumped from there to “real oppression started”? Next paragraph make it pretty clear that slaves are doubly oppressed than proletarians, since they need to freed themselves to become what proletarians already are. Also i don’t really get how being worse off automatically means being more oppressed, going by that logic citizens of Cuba are more oppressed than those of USA.
In a way, Cuban citizens are more oppressed than U.S. citizens because the people of Cubans have been oppressed by imperialism for decades, while Americans are just oppressed by their domestic/national bourgeoisie.
Engels would say this about the transition from chattel slavery to wage-slavery. One of his few bad takes.
I don’t know if I agree with that, unless I misunderstand what you’re saying
Did he or you just say he would? This do require citation.
From the Principles of Communism
I get your point, but it’s not nearly as ridiculous as saying that’s when the “real” oppression began.
I know, it’s not exactly the same, it’s just something that came to my mind when I read “that’s when the real oppression began.”
What you coloured, taken by itself it sounds like pretty nebulous statement because both slaves and proletarians through history could have had very different existences, including the rare cases where slaves did had it better, but read the part after the “,” which says that regardless of it, proletarian is always on a higher social level than slave.
In fact, it is completely opposite to your claim that he would say that wage slavery is somehow worse oppresion than chattel slavery.
How so? Engels argues proles are worse off because they are more replaceable as their labor is being bought as opposed to slaves who are owned and therefore more value and less disposable to their master.
How did you jumped from there to “real oppression started”? Next paragraph make it pretty clear that slaves are doubly oppressed than proletarians, since they need to freed themselves to become what proletarians already are. Also i don’t really get how being worse off automatically means being more oppressed, going by that logic citizens of Cuba are more oppressed than those of USA.
In a way, Cuban citizens are more oppressed than U.S. citizens because the people of Cubans have been oppressed by imperialism for decades, while Americans are just oppressed by their domestic/national bourgeoisie.
Of course, but obviously i meant by their own state.